It is incontrovertible that the wealthiest 1% of Americans have
benefited from exploding income and
collapsing taxes over the previous thirty years. I haven’t seen anyone deduce how much of the rise in income is attributable to the decrease in taxes; if we know that, we know how much of the income growth has been structural (that which would have occurred if tax rates stayed the same) versus … ephemeral (change in tax codes). In other words, a 20% decrease in taxes – from 50% to 40%, for argument’s sake – translates directly into a 20% increase in post-tax income. If the income growth discourse focuses on post-tax income, then I suspect most of the increase in income to the rich is because of lower taxes and not real gains to their income.
It is unclear, as far as I can tell, what figures people are talking about whenever they argue either side of the issue. If we are talking about post-tax income, which I doubt, than a cursory analysis suggests that correcting inequality simply requires fixing our tax code. If we are talking about pre-tax income, however, than there are larger structural forces at work. Arguing for structural forces is not, for me, arguing against higher taxes, but it does suggest that we need a deeper reassessment of several institutions, not just the tax code.
So, does anyone know which form of income people are talking about in these debates?
Posted in Rhetoric and Ideology.
Tagged with income taxes, real versus nominal income, tax code, tax cuts, tax discourse, tax rhetoric.
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